2014年2月24日星期一

Exam ITIL-F questions and answers

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Exam Code: ITIL-F
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 238 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A.Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B.Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C.Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D.Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A.Allows higher volumes of successful change
B.Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C.Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D.Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.3 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A.People, process, partners, performance
B.Performance, process, products, plans
C.People, process, products, partners
D.People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A.Process owner
B.Change manager
C.Service manager
D.Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A.Incident and financial management
B.Change and release and deployment management
C.Incident and event management
D.Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A.Change proposal
B.Change policy
C.Service request
D.Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.7 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A.Service design: Design the processes
B.Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A.Service level management
B.IT operations management
C.Capacity management
D.Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A.Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B.Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C.Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D.Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A.To identify patterns of business activity
B.To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C.To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D.To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-001
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 424 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.6 What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets,
resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio
management?
1.Those planned to be delivered
2.Those being delivered
3.Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service
operation?
1.Local service desk
2.Virtual service desk
3.IT help desk
4.Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A

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NO.14 A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following
would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-670
Exam Name: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.5 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.8 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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NO.14 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.16 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.17 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-340
Exam Name: EMC (Clariion solutiongs implementation)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How many CLARiiON arrays are qualified to be in a single domain?
A.100
B.96
C.48
D.128
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has
requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.
What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?
A.Medium
B.High
C.Low
D.Ignore
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct order of the management module components?
A.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
B.GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
C.SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE Management LAN
D.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; E-NMI Button
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480.?
A.475
B.16
C.480
D.32
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer would like to extend their CX4 cache after purchasing Flash drives.
Which Unisphere dialog should be used to configure this feature?
A.Storage System Properties, FAST Cache tab
B.Storage SP Properties, Cache tab
C.Storage SP Properties, SP Memory tab
D.Storage System Properties, SP Cache
Answer: A

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NO.6 What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?
A.FLARE and vault
B.Linux OS and metadata
C.DART and vault
D.Enginuity and metadata
Answer: A

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NO.7 What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?
A.Unisphere Initialization Utility
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Service Manager
D.Unisphere Client
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has a domain and for security reasons, management and CLI features can only be
performed from the SAN team workstations.
How would IP filtering be configured?
A.SAN team workstation IP addresses
B.SPA IP addresses
C.DNS IP addresses
D.Management stations ¯ I P add r esse
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SPA. Upon arrival you
notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.
What is the boot state of SPA?
A.POST Starting OS
B.OS Booted
C.Executing BIOS
D.FLARE Driver Complete
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached hosts
on a CX4?
A.16
B.8
C.4
D.2
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time allowed for
NTP?
A.30 minutes
B.60 minutes
C.15 minutes
D.10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit. Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate with
SPA.
You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to connect to SPA?
A.128.221.1.250
B.192.168.1.250
C.128.221.1.251
D.192.168.1.251
Answer: A

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NO.14 When working with FLARE 30, which tool is required when upgrading FLARE or performing a DAE
upgrade?
A.Unisphere Service Manager
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Initialization Utility
D.NDU Upgrade Tool
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which access restrictions are enabled if IP address filtering is configured on a CLARiiON?
A.Specific management clients
B.iSCSI ports, and ESRS communications
C.Unisphere service ports
D.iSCSI ports
Answer: A

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NO.1 The type hierarchy that is shown has only custom attributes displayed.
The following DQL statement is executed:
select
r_object_id
, object_name
, c_channel
from
c_product
where
datediff(week, r_creation_date, date(today)) <= 1
How many table joins would the query cause in the database when executed as a superuser?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company requires that when an article document is saved it should inherit certain attributes from the
folder it is stored into.
How should you design this solution?
A. create a custom TBO that overrides the doSave method of the folder object, so that when documents
are saved in it, their attributes are updated with the folder's attributes
B. create a relation between the folder and the document type with cascade update property set and add
the attributes to be inherited
C. create a Smart Container for the folder with a member relationship for the document and add the
attributes to be inherited
D. create a method that is scheduled as a job to update newly saved article documents.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to
reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder
through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change
security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using
Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

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NO.5 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32) repeating
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and two DB views
D. two DB tables and four DB views
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer wants to maintain the annual financial reports using a Documentum Content Management
System. Different parts of the document must be authored and reviewed by different people and individual
parts of the document must be combined in a particular order to form the final PDF document.
What is useful for implementing the solution?
A. PDF Annotations Services and relationship objects
B. Smart Containers and Content Transformation Services (CTS)
C. Virtual Document and Advanced Document Transformation Services (ADTS)
D. XML applications and Media Transformation Services (MTS)
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use
Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have
been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a
centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is
required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for
chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store
for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application
for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a
configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the
content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple
interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for
the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves
searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical
report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

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NO.10 A law firm that handles a large volume of cases requires a system that meets the following
requirements:
-provides a central location to create, store and manage documents
-tracks discussions on a case and advice given
-protects the content of files sent to co-counsels and clients
Which solution meets the law firm's requirements?
A. Knowledge Worker solution and Information Rights Manager (IRM) Services
B. Transactional Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Interactive Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
D. Knowledge Worker solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
Answer: A

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NO.11 A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of
content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author
content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development
of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should
also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for
web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company's infrastructure architect advises that tiered
storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has
enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect's recommendation
can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

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NO.13 A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the
following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer's requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

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NO.14 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32)
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and four DB views
D. two DB tables and two DB views
Answer: C

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NO.15 In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products
contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by
Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer is planning to build a WebPublisher template with product name and product description
elements. When a user enters the values for the product name and product description fields in the
content, the product name value from the content needs to be copied to the keyword attribute.
Which solution meets this requirement with minimal effort?
A. customize WebPublisher WDK component to update attribute values upon saving of documents
B. create a TBO to update attribute values upon saving of documents
C. create an XML application to update attribute values from document content
D. create a custom SBO application and invoke it on document save.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and
ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

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NO.18 An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The
company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to
be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need
to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

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NO.19 An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed
architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web
services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum
Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield
better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content
Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You
must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much
better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum
Repository
Answer: C

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NO.20 A Documentum customer is using Webtop to manage their documents. They want to provide read
access to these documents for their 2000 customers located globally. The customer has already
purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with
"read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide
their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients
access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to
a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

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NO.21 In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content
Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

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NO.22 You are designing the data model for a retailer's catalog application. A description of all products for
sale will be stored in the Documentum repository. There are thousands of different types of products.
Each product may have a unique set of attributes. Users should be able to add or remove attributes from
a product definition at runtime.
Which approach should you use to provide the required flexibility in data types, and also provide good
query performance when searching for product information?
A. You create a type called product that contains all common attributes and attach and detach attribute
aspects as required. For searching, you use the TRY_FTDQL_FIRST DQL hint.
B. You use XML content stored in an XML store, add and remove attributes by modifying the XML content,
and use IDfXQuery to search for product information.
C. You use lightweight objects with the parent object containing common attribute values. Parent objects
are created for each product description. For searching, you use NOFTDQL queries.
D. You create a standard object type hierarchy and issue alter type statements, as needed, to modify
types at runtime. For searching, you use FTDQL queries.
Answer: B

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NO.23 A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective.
The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

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NO.24 A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an
electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to
their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is
required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects
the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

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NO.25 A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided
to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their
users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer's
requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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NO.26 A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum
installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and
the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the
remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

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NO.27 An engineer designs the data model that is shown for a shipping application in a repository that does
not have fulltext search enabled.
It is required that a query returns all shipping_transaction documents, shipped on a given shipping_date,
with a particular shipping_code.
Querying with either shipping_code or shipping_date alone would return hundreds of thousands of
objects. Querying on both shipping_date and shipping_code, returns a selective set of objects.
Given the example query:
select r_object_id, customer_id, shipping_date
from shipping_transaction
where na_specific_data.shipping_code=4267.86
and shipping_date = date('11/25/2008')
Which statement is true about use of aspects in this scenario?
A. It will cause a DQL parser error, because it is NOT possible to include both aspect and standard
attributes within the same query.
B. It will improve query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
C. It will degrade query response time, because a database index on the combination of attributes that
make the query selective CANNOT be created.
D. It will degrade query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are designing a Documentum application for managing project documents. When a new project is
initiated, the system should automatically create a folder for the project and populate it with 5 sub-folders
for the project phases and the appropriate document templates within each phase folder
Which approach meets these requirements with minimal effort?
A. construct a Smart Container with folders and document templates
B. define a relationship object for folders and document templates
C. create a Virtual Document for document templates and relationship for folders
D. customize Webtop to set up project folder structure
Answer: A

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NO.29 A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for
integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their
Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend
a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer's needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High
Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and
TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process
Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.30 In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services
(ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-594
Exam Name: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.3 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.4 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.5 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

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NO.6 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.9 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.14 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.15 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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Exam Code: EVP-100
Exam Name: EMC (2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two (2) VNX Arrays will the Velocity partners focus their efforts on selling?
A. VNX5700
B. VNX5300
C. VNX5500
D. VNX7500
E. VNX5100
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What type of drive is best suited for environments where high IOPS is required?
A. SAS
B. Flash Drives
C. Fibre Channel
D. NL SAS
Answer: B

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NO.3 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

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NO.4 The VNX Total Protection Pack consists of which of the software suites?
A. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
B. VNX Local Protection Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
E. VNX Application Protection Suite
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 Which VNX Array is Block Based only?
A. VNX5100
B. VNX5500
C. VNX5300
D. VNX5700
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two (2) new drive types were introduced with the VNX array family?
A. Enterprise Flash Drives
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SATA Flash Drives
E. NL SAS
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 When comparing the different software suites for the VNXe, which one of the software suites provides
for file and block snapshots?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Application Protection Suite
C. Security and Compliance Suite
D. Local Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which suite of software is the Unisphere Analyzer part of?
A. VNX Local Protection Suite
B. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
Answer: D

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NO.9 When comparing the different software suites for the VNX, which one provides for automated,
application aware replication, monitoring, notification, and reporting via Replication Manager and Data
Protection Advisor for Replication Analysis?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Security and Compliance Suite
C. Local Protection Suite
D. Application Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.10 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

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NO.11 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the term used to describe the total amount of Thin LUN user capacity that is configured in the
Pool and
is presented to the attached hosts?
A. Over Subscribed Capacity
B. Host Capacity
C. Subscribed Capacity
D. User Capacity
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

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NO.14 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
A. integrated Data Protection
B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.16 Which (3) are considered software features of VNX.?
A. Unified IP based protocols
B. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
C. FibreChannel Connectivity
D. Simplified Management
E. Integrated Data Protection
F. Active/active ease of use
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.17 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.18 What feature of the VNX allows the array to identify bottlenecks and hot-spots in the VNX storage
systems?
A. Data Compression
B. Unisphere Analyzer
C. FASTVP
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three (3) protocols will the VNXe array work with?
A. iSCSI (file emulated)
B. Fibre Channel
C. FTP/SFTP
D. CIFS
E. iSCSI (native block)
F. NFS
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.20 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

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