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Exam Code: HP2-E37
Exam Name: HP (selling HP Bladesystems)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are the IT concerns of customers who fall within the SMB market space? (Select two.)
A. supporting their business
B. decentralizing their business
C. stabilizing their business
D. growing their business
E. capitalizing their business
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 HP has been recognized by Gartner as a leader within the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Blades (Jan
2011). What does that recognition signify?
A. HP is a leader in price.
B. HP is a leader in market penetration.
C. HP is a leader in its completeness of vision and ability to execute.
D. HP is a leader in its vision for blades within the market.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Customers that have invested in HP Converged Infrastructure are able to transform their data centers
and accomplish which objective?
A. introduce less demanding service level agreements
B. reduce the number of IT projects
C. drives business innovation and eliminate IT sprawl
D. develop a social media strategy for competitive advantage
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which innovative HP BladeSystem features deliver true energy manageability and savings.? (Select
three.)
A. Uni-directional Link Detection
B. HP Power Regulator
C. Dual Flash Images
D. Sea of Sensors
E. Dynamic Power Saver
F. HP Application Manager
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 When the HP BladeSystem portfolio is described as a balanced architecture, what does that mean?
A. It is a portfolio that leverages industry standards to deliver next generation blade servers.
B. It is a portfolio that accommodates SMB and Enterprise customers across all industries.
C. It is a portfolio that meets the varied needs of customers by optimizing and balancing key elements
beyond processor performance including memory expansion and network/storage I/O.
D. It is a portfolio that exceeds expectations and lifecycles as a result of best-in-class innovations.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP3-X05
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Mini NetBook Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which capabilities does the Broadcom Crystal HD Enhanced Video Accelerator provide to HP mini
notebooks? (Select two.)
A. support for dual video processors
B. support for AVCHD
C. support for Gobi technology
D. support for WPAN technology
E. support for H.264 video file playback
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding the Broadcom 4312G 802.11b/g WiFi and 2070 Bluetooth 2.1+EDR
Combo Adapter.?
A. The WLAN and Bluetooth devices are built into one standard minicardmodule.
B. Windows Device Manager detects the combination adapter as two separatedevices.
C. The HP Wireless Assistant can enable one device while the other remainsdisabled.
D. Performance is improved if the WLAN and Bluetooth modules are usedsimultaneously.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-X10
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Essential Desktop Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 23 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which memory configurations cannot be fully addressed by an HP PC running the 32-bit Windows 7
Home Premium operating system.?
A. 2048MB (1024MB x 2)
B. 2048MB (2048MB x 1)
C. 3072MB (3072MB x 1)
D. 4096MB (2048MB x 2)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tasks does the HP Support Assistant enable you to perform? (Select three.)
A. reinstalling the software image
B. connecting to the HP support agent
C. changing the boot order
D. viewing a computer's action history
E. clearing the BIOS passwords
F. scheduling periodic tune-ups
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: HP2-K21
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Enterprise Storage Solutions-Delta)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 On the X1000 and X3000 Network storage systems, which standard feature of Windows 2008 optimizes
storage capacity by actively comparing and eliminating identical files on file sharing volumes?
A. dynamic deduplication
B. StofeOnce
C. accelerated deduplication
D. Single Instance Storage
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer is looking to implement replication between three D2D devices. Which statement is true
about licensing the replication functionality of the D2D?
A. A replication license is required for both the source and the target devices
B. A replication license is required for the target devices
C. Replication functionality is included as part of the base firmware and is not licensed
D. A replication license is only required for the source device.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Autonomic tiering provides a self-optimizing capability for which HP array'?
A. HP EVA
B. HP3PAR
C. HP P4000
D. HPX9000
Answer: B

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NO.4 The StorageWorks P4000 SAN architecture consists of three basic layers. Which function or component
is contained in the OS infrastructure layer?
A. Security Services
B. Centralized Management Console
C. Windows Solution Pack
D. P4000VSA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer has two D2D2501 devices each with a single VTL configured and a D2D4112 with two
VTLs configured, each replicating to a D2D4312 How many replication licenses are required for this
design.?
A. 1 license
B. 2 licenses
C. 3 licenses
D. 4 licenses
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about using Performance Advisor to gather P9500 performance data?
A. One collection schedule can be created per array.
B. Two collection schedules can be created per array
C. Three collection schedules can be created per array
D. Four collection schedules can be created per array
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true about iSCSl clusters when implemented on a P4000?
A. It can only span one subnet
B. It can only span two subnets
C. It can only span three subnets
D. It can only span tour subnets
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer is considering the HP 3PAR range of arrays and is concerned about resilience. Which
feature provides increased resiliency?
A. write-thru cache
B. disk-dependent RAID
C. dynamic optimization
D. many-to-many drive rebuild
Answer: D

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NO.9 The HP 3PAR architecture is capable of parallel processing of data and control information. What does
this help provide?
A. QoS tagging of all 10 requests
B. l/O priontization
C. application aware I'O processing
D. consistent performance for mixed workloads
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which P4000 features does a Multi-site SAN offer that a Campus SAN does not? (Select two.)
A. multi-subnet clusters
B. centralized licensing
C. I/O preferencingbasedon site
D. auto failover and tailback
E. SAN1Q Failover Manager
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M52
Exam Name: HP (HP BSM Operations Manager on UNIX and Linux 9.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The lead HPOM administrator needs to stop the Admin UI application. Which shell commands can be
run to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. adminui stop
B. ovc -kill
C. AdminUI -stop
D. ovc -stop adminui
E. adminui -kill
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 By default, what is performed during the initial installation process? (Select three.)
A. starting of OMU/OML processes
B. policies deployment on managed nodes
C. checking for prerequisites
D. installation and configuration of a local agent on the server
E. automatic installation of operating system patches
F. automatic creation of a database instance on the remote server
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 A "State-Based" browser operates on two guiding principles. What are they? (Select two.)
A. Multiple messages related to the same object are present in the browser to identify its actual state.
B. New messages that have more current information about an object do not acknowledge the old
messages.
C. At any point in time, there is one or are many messages for each object.
D. New messages that have more current information about an object should acknowledge the old
messages.
E. At any point in time, there is one, and only one, message for each object.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 During policy deployment to a group of managed nodes, a message returned says that deployment was
unsuccessful on one of the nodes. The administrator suspects there may be a corrupted core ID on the
managed node. How can the core ID be checked?
A. by running the ovcert -list command on the management server
B. by running the ovcoreid command on the management server for the managed node
C. by running the ovconfget sec.core.auth MANAGER_ID command on the managed node
D. by running the opcnode -list_id node_list=nodename command on the management server
Answer: D

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NO.5 How is the HPOM Admin UI used? (Select three.)
A. to configure custom script for monitoring applications
B. to add new message groups
C. to add system users via LDAP integration
D. to distribute policies to managed systems
E. to configure SNMP Community Strings for network device monitoring
F. to add new nodes to be monitored
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.6 What is the minimum that must be set when defining a new user in HPOM? (Select two.)
A. a unique username
B. tools associated with user
C. associated service attributes
D. responsibilities
E. password
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 What are the benefits of HPOM.? (Select three.)
A. reduced time to repair
B. improved software distribution
C. clearer silo separation
D. improved quality of service
E. no agents management overhead
F. investment protection
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.8 What is one benefit of Service Navigator?
A. It can be used as a trouble ticket system.
B. It can specify more than one threshold for the same severity.
C. It is a plug-in for the JAVA GUI.
D. It performs a get impacted services analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the key user elements when adding a user in HPOM? (Select two.)
A. nodes
B. objects
C. tools
D. responsibilities
E. services
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 In a pattern matching expression, what is the function of the <*> syntax?
A. to match any string of zero or more arbitrary characters
B. to match a sequence of one or more separator characters
C. to match any string that contains no separator characters
D. to match a sequence of one or more digits
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z22
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Network Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The FlexNetwork architecture is tailored to the needs of which business size?
A. Small businesses
B. Small and mid-sized businesses
C. Mid-sized and large businesses
D. Small, mid-sized, and large businesses
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does the fact that the business model is shifting to a more centralized and virtualized data center
impact branch office networks?
A. Because businesses are shifting away from dedicated application servers running in the branch,
branch office network management is radically simplified.
B. Branch office networks have very few security and compliance concerns because all company data is
stored and backed up at a centralized location with targeted security.
C. Branch office networks may be farther from productivity-enhancing network resources than they used
to be, creating delay when helping customers.
D. Because the data center is composed of high-performance network devices with next-generation
traffic-prioritization capabilities, emerging voice and video applications will run with ease in today's branch
offices.
Answer: D

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NO.3 For campus LANs, Gartner predicts that one factor will push network capacity by as much as 10 times
current levels. What is this factor?
A. applications hosted in private clouds
B. video
C. Voice over IP traffic
D. SANs
Answer: B

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NO.4 A mid-sized business is seeking a networking solution, and the customer is concerned about how the
components will work together from end to end now and in the future.
What message should the HP sales professional deliver.?
A. The customer must use the same vendor from end to end to ensure interoperability; HP provides
servers, storage, and networking components.
B. The customer should implement open standards wherever possible, and certainly at the boundaries of
each network segment to enable the company to select the best solutions for each segment and have
them interoperate
C. The customer should commit to a single open-standard vendor, which implements with proven,
best-in-industry solutions.
D. The customer should select solutions based on which provide the best proprietary protocols for the
company's highest priority business needs.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer is concerned that adding an 802.11n-compliant access point will overload the network
infrastructure where the controller connects to the network. How would the HP optimized WLAN alleviate
this concern?
A. The HP controllers support aggregated links, allowing you to increase bandwidth as needed to handle
the added traffic generated by 802.11n wireless networks.
B. The HP controller can buffer the wireless traffic as needed so that it does not cause congestion on the
wired network.
C. Each AP can forward traffic directly onto the wired network, so that the controller and its connection to
the network do not become bottlenecks.
D. The HP controller supports quality of service (QoS) mechanisms, allowing you to prioritize
delay-sensitive applications.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many ports in a legacy three-tier network are typically used just to interconnect the switches?
A. one-quarter (1/4)
B. one-half (1/2)
C. two-thirds (2/3)
D. three-quarters (3/4)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Microsoft, Avaya, and Aastra provide what service through their HP AllianceONE partnership?
A. WAN acceleration for increased remote application performance
B. remote network management
C. reliable, unified communications
D. radio frequency (RF) vulnerability protection
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a primary disadvantage for companies that have committed to a single-vendor network?
A. The single-vendor network often fails to provide advanced solutions because proprietary technologies
so often lag behind open-standard ones.
B. The components in the single-vendor network fail to interoperate with each other well because they
use proprietary technologies.
C. The companies are limited in their future choice of services and solutions based on whether their
choices work with that vendor's proprietary technologies.
D. The company cannot segment the network well, which makes it more difficult for network designers to
implement an efficient, two-tier architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which product feature contributes to the exceptional switching performance of the FlexFabric portfolio
for the mid-sized business?
A. The products for the mid-sized business provide low port density to simplify the network.
B. The products for the mid-sized business provide efficient packet buffering.
C. The products for the mid-sized business provide support for up to 40GbE at the access layer.
D. The products for the mid-sized business provide support for up to 150GbE at the core
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a typical struggle for a company that has allowed its network management solution to grow
organically?
A. The IT staff must use a diverse set of management tools that do not integrate with each other.
B. The company has been locked into a costly management solution as part of a package with a single
vendor.
C. The company has a single management solution which does not fit the needs of some segments of the
network.
D. The IT staff implement all configuration and management manually without the help of any
management tools.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E49
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Servers, Storage and Networking - Upgrade )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which feature does the Integrity Superdome 2 support?
A. internal disk storage
B. zx2 chipset
C. passive backplane
D. sx2000 chipset
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which HP clustering software product allocates resources and manages application performance,
based on service-level objectives?
A. Tru64 Unix
B. HP-UX Workload Manager
C. HP OpenVMS
D. HP Serviceguard
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer hosts an Integrity server locally. The server is on a Percent CPU agreement within the HP
Pay-per-Use program. Which statement is true about this agreement?
A. The customer determines the percentage of CPUs that are active.
B. The Utility Metering Appliance reads all CPUs once every 24 hours and averages the utilization.
C. The customer can use up to 25% of the CPUs in the server.
D. Cost is based on the number of active processors.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is a feature of the Matrix Operating Environment?
A. real-time capacity planning
B. control of all infrastructure elements
C. provision application environments
D. consolidation of Ethernet and storage networks
Answer: B

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NO.5 A long-time HP customer has an application that has developed a large quantity of unstructured
data. He is looking for a cost-effective storage solution for this data. Which drive technology is commonly
used for this type of data.?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. PATA
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.6 How do Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs) differ from vPars?
A. VMs use dedicated resources that are exclusively under the control of one kernel; vPars do not.
B. vPars employ the Platform Manager; VMs do not.
C. vPars are better than VMs for fine-grained, virtualized soft partitioning with shared resources.
D. VMs share processor and I/O devices among guest kernels; vPars do not.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which requirements does the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud service meet? (Select two.)
A. storage
B. application services
C. processing
D. database management
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 You have a customer who requires a storage solution for a large amount of structured data. Which drive
technology is commonly recommended for such a purpose?
A. SATA
B. IDE
C. PATA
D. SAS
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is true about Integrity virtual partitions?
A. They divide soft partitions into separate pools.
B. They provide isolation of cell boards through partitioning and virtualization technology.
C. They allocate a complete resource to a specific application.
D. They run their own image of an operating system to isolate an application from other applications
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which features of Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise are supported by the HP Converged
Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. plug-and-play storage
B. clustering
C. hot-add processor
D. virtual partitions
E. FlexFabric
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-K24
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Storage )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The data explosion started when the IT industry reached a significant milestone in information
processing and storage: Shared Storage Arrays were emerging, 500 million PCs were in use, and 3G
networks were being established.
In which year did this happen?
A. 2000
B. 2003
C. 2006
D. 2011
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify who said, Every two days we create as much information as we did from the dawn of civilization
up to 2003."
A. Eric Schmidt, Google
B. Dave Donatelli, HP
C. Tim Berners-Lee, W3C
D. Roger W. Cox, Gartner
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which issue might your customer be experiencing with Microsoft Exchange 2003?
A. It has limitations on mailbox size.
B. It uses non-standard network protocols.
C. It has limited management tools.
D. It is able to use only direct attached storage.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Based on research by IDC, what is the worldwide SMB IT spend expected to be in 2014.?
A. approximately $500 million
B. approximately $100 billion
C. approximately $300 billion
D. approximately $600 billion
Answer: D

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
You are preparing for a meeting with your SMB customer, who has a mid-sized data center. Match the
topics you should be ready to discuss with the corresponding roles within your customer's organization.
Answer:

NO.6 Which HP Storage solution for Virtualized Servers enabled Mitsubishi Electric to save several hundred
thousand dollars?
A. P1000 3PAR Utility storage
B. P4000 LeftHand SAN
C. HP P6300 EVA Disk Array
D. HP X9000 IBRIX NAS
Answer: B

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NO.7 One of your customers has an IT team with three full time employees and three to four contractors
brought in occasionally when needed. On average, approximately how many people are likely to be
working on the introduction of innovative solutions to grow their business, reduce costs, and improve
ROI?
A. One person
B. Two people
C. Three people
D. Four people
Answer: A

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NO.8 HP has a range of solutions for small businesses that employ between 10 and 99 employees.
What is this range of solutions called?
A. HP Just Right IT
B. HP Rational IT
C. HP Converged IT
D. HP Balanced IT
Answer: A

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NO.9 The average American is consuming more that 34Gbytes of data per year. This is placing increased
pressure on the management of which type of SMB infrastructure?
A. mobile phones
B. storage
C. scanners
D. printers
Answer: B

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NO.10 What impact is the rapid growth of mobile and web applications like Twitter, YouTube, and Facebook
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A. IT organizations are able to more easily adjust strategies and operations with the inclusion of social
networks.
B. Users expect their office IT systems to work 24x7, provide instant responses, and have sophisticated
user interfaces.
C. Storage capacity needs to increase to accommodate the large files created by personal web data.
D. Users expect higher resolution displays for their work environment to match that which they have at
home or on the move.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K31
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which feature, included in HP StoreOnce Backup, eliminates redundant data during backups by saving
a single copy of identical data and replacing any further instances with pointers back to that copy?
A. deduplication
B. dynamic allocation
C. dynamic reallocation
D. low-bandwidth replication
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of storage includes an internal RAID controller?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. FibreChannel
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of disk drive provides the highest level of performance?
A. ISSD
B. IDE
C. SCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the correct term for information typically found in a database?
A. metadata
B. hypermedia
C. structured content
D. unstructured content
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an advantage of the HP LeftHand 4000 Virtual SAN Appliance?
A. SAN benefits without dedicated external storage
B. file store for unstructured data
C. command view administration
D. minimized failure domains
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a logical unit number (LUN)?
A. a unique ID used to present a larger or smaller view of disk storage to the server
B. a command data block sent by an iSCSI initiator to a target
C. an algorithm that determines whether an I/O stream will benefit from caching
D. a collection of Fibre Channel adapters (FCAs) that resides in the same virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.7 The HP LeftHand 4800 Storage for HP Bladesystem solves the performance issue often associated
with virtualized server environments. What is the main reason for this performance improvement?
A. dense spindle count
B. immediate access with Virtually Instantaneous Snapclones
C. effective utilization of storage space with Virtually Capacity-Free Snapshots
D. redundant storage sets
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is an advantage of SAS drives over SATA drives?
A. greater disk capacity
B. higher speed data transfers
C. lower cost per GB
D. hot-swap capability
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of storage uses a host bus adapter (HBA) located in the host server typically with a Fibre
Channel interface?
A. internal
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Answer: C

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NO.10 DRAG DROP
Your customer has a tiered storage environment. Match each tier with the appropriate type of storage
media.
Drag the options on the right to match the choices on the left
Answer:

NO.11 In which type of RAID is each disk paired with another specific disk?
A. RAID0
B. RAID1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement is true about HP Ultrium Tape Blades.?
A. They can be used with an HP SB40c Storage Blade and connected to the same server blade.
B. They are developed exclusively for HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures.
C. They use TapeAssure for hardware data encryption.
D. They represent five generations of LTO tape blade technology
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which HP tape technology enables library-based encryption?
A. Ultrium 448
B. Super DLT II 600GB
C. Super DLT 320
D. LTO-5 Ultrium 3280
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the function of HP StoreOnce Backup?
A. provides additional virtual devices and leverages existing EVA infrastructure
B. enables administrators to change backup software and monitoring policies
C. accelerates backup performance in complex SAN and iSCSI environments
D. increases the capacity and thus the complexity of a SAN environment
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which HP intellectual property innovations does StoreOnce deduplication software leverage? (Select
two.)
A. fine-grained, variable chunking
B. data sampling
C. policy enforcing
D. sparse indexing
E. locality optimizing
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP2-H01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops and Workstations)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.2 HP Disk Sanitizei (Shredder) is part of which HP security suite?
A. SecurityTools
B. ProtectTools
C. DefenclTools
D. SafeGuarclTools
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HP TouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convert DisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is in hibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.15 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that identifies the Mobile PCI eXpress Module (MXM) card.
Answer:

NO.16 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.17 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation.? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Vista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1 NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M58
Exam Name: HP (HP Software Testing Foundation 11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which Quality Center module manages libraries and baselines?
A. Baseline module
B. Management module
C. Librariesmodule
D. Requirement module
Answer: C

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NO.2 When using HP Sprinter, what enables the selection of rows of data to be sent automatically to
relevant locations in a form?
A. annotating a screen capture
B. data injection
C. macros
D. mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does this icon in the Requirements module represent?
A. Requirements: Attachments
B. Requirements: Requirement Details
C. Requirements: Select Columns
D. Requirements: Send by Email
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which ALM add-in provides a variety of tools to assist in the manual testing process?
A. Quality Center Connectivity
B. Quality Center System Test Remote Agent
C. Sprinter
D. ALM add-ins
Answer: C

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NO.5 When is test said to be economical?
A. Each test should have a distinct objective, such as verifying a specific function or system requirement.
B. Test Plan A test must include only the necessary steps and fields that are needed for its purpose.
C. Each iteration of the test must execute consistently.
D. A test must be appropriate for its testers and its environment.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true?
A. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle start dates only.
B. Cycles may exist independent of one another.
C. Cycle dates cannot overlap with each other.
D. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle end dates only.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which module under Testing enables you to develop and manage tests in a hierarchical tree-structure?
A. Test Lab
B. Test Plan
C. Business Components
D. Test Resources
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which defect status indicates that the defect has been resolved but it is pending approval by the
testing team?
A. New
B. Fixed
C. Reopen
D. Open
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which option from the Test Type drop down should you select to run an Astra Load Test?
A. LR-Scenario
B. ALT-Scenario
C. VAPI-XP-Test
D. QUICKTEST_TEST
Answer: D

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NO.10 A test set folder contains tests that can be assigned to cycles in the Management module. What does
this association allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Review the progress of the tests.
B. Determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects.
C. Enable test sets to be included in a baseline.
D. Determine the maximum number of test sets for a cycle.
E. Enhance reporting ability.
F. Review the responsible testers included in each cycle.
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.11 Which value in the Compare Baseline tool indicates that there is a difference in the entity between the
baselines?
A. Added
B. Absent
C. Moved
D. Modified
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which menu provides the Document Generator option?
A. Analysis
B. Report
C. Tools
D. Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.13 The Traceability Matrix lists the number of relationships for each source requirement. Which type of
value in this matrix implies that the source requirement is not associated with enough requirements or
tests?
A. a high value
B. a low value
C. a negative value
D. a zero value
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is used to highlight problems in images attached to a step, run, actual result, or defect?
A. annotations
B. macros
C. smart defect
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.15 What does the Execution report list do.?
A. the test sets that appear in the Test Lab module, without listing their tests
B. the test instances with their testing status
C. the requirements in the Requirement module
D. the tests in the Test Plan module
Answer: B

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