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Exam Code: 6007-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A technician is verifying an Avaya ACE Hot Desking deployment. Avaya ACE and the
Application
Integration Engine (AIE) are installed, configured, and fully operational.
Ah Avaya ACE administrator previously configured a user ID and password for the Hotdesk
Virtual
Secretary User ID in the Avaya ACE GUI. The Hot Desking application configuration has
been
completed in the AIE GUI.
Which action should be taken to verify that the variable entered for the Hotdesk Virtual
Secretary User ID
in the AIE GUI is correct?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, search for and list the user IDfor the Hotdesk virtual
secretary.Ensurethe
AvayaACE user ID matches the variable entered fur the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID.
B. Using the AIEUser Synchronization tool, generate a report of valid user IDs. Ensure the
variable
enteredtot the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID is listedin the synchronization report.
C. Using the Windows server console, retrieve the local users. Ensure the variable entered
for
theHotdeskVirtualSecretaryuser ID displays inthelist of local Windows user.
D. Ensure the variable entered for theHotdeskVirtual Secretary User ID in the
AIEGUIhasautomatically
populated duringthe AIE installation.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician has completed the installation and configuration of an Avaya ACE and
IBM Lotus
Sametime for an integration solution. The solution includes telephony client presence.
Which action should be taken to ensure the deployment was successful?
A. Log into the Sametime server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has been added
to the
site.xml file.
B. Log into the Sametime Domino server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has
beenadded to
theTCSPIconfiguration file.
C. Log into theAvayaACE GUI and ensure contactinformation for the Sametime Connect
client has been
automatically populated by Avaya ACE .
D. Log into the Sametime Connect client andensure that a telephony presence icon
appearsfor
theSametimeConnect client users who are configured for telephony presenceinformation in
AvayaACE .
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is deploying a Microsoft Desktop Enablement (Web Browser and Office
Add-ins) solution
and has used the Avaya ACE Configuraor interface to build the add-in install packages for
the end
users.
Which action should be taken to verify the Avaya ACE configuration is valid?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, ensureOfficeAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnableduser
groupsarepresentin the list of Avaya ACE usergroups.
B. Using the WebSphere Administrative Console, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabledandBrowserAddingEnabledservicesare Started.
C. Using theWindows serverconsole,run the Addin_service_control.bat file and ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
D. Using the Application Integration Engine (AIE) GUI Status window, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and
BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE)
version 3.2. As part
of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate
operating
system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has geographically diverse sites and plans to deploy an Avaya ACE
Federation. Their
network includes a Communication Server 1000 (CS1000) system running a supported
software release,
IBM Lotus Sametime, and the associated end-user telephones and clients.
When planning the Federation architecture, which is the platform consideration?
A. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an AvayaACE High Availability (HA) configuration.
B. An AvayaACE Federation requires an AvayaACE Linux-based hardware platform.
C. An Avaya ACE Federation requires a Microsoft Office Communications Server (OCS)
serviceprovider.
D. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an Application Integration Engine (AIE) server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A mid-size enterprise is deploying an Avaya ACE IBM Lotus Sametime Integration
solution. The
customer network includes IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, and a communication
Server 1000
system and end-user telephones and clients.
A technician has a work order to install the Avaya ACE Technology Conferencing Service
Provider
Interface (TCSPI) on the Sametime server as part of the UC deployment.
Where can a copy of the latest version of the Avaya ACE TCSPI be obtained?
A. from the Avaya ACE GUIHelp menu
B. from the IBMLotus Sametime server
C. from the Domino server
D. from the IBM Lotus Notes catalog
Answer: C

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NO.7 A global bank has an Avaya High Availability (HA) ACE system Installed, and wants to
deploy the Hot
Decking application. The customer wants to ensure high availability and reliability for
application users.
Which additional hardware and operating system is required beyond the Avaya HA ACE base
to
support the solution.?
A. One additional Linux server for the Avaya ACE base and two Linux or Windows servers to
host the
Application IntegrationEngine(AIE) software.
B. Two additional Linux servers for the AvayaACE base and twoLinux or Windows servers to
hostthe
AIE software.
C. TwoWindows servers to host the AIEsoftware.
D. No additional hardware, the AvayaACE and AIC software will co-reside on the same
server.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An existing Avaya ACE customer wants a solution that will work with its existing
customer resource
management (CRM) system to notify customers proactively about promotions or offers
relevant to their
individual needs. The customer has an Avaya ACE on Windows core solution and does not
want to
deploy additional hardware.
Which Avaya ACE solution matches the key capabilities that the customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. EventResponse Manager
C. Message Drop and Blast
D. WebBrowser and Office Add-ins.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer is deploying an Avaya ACE on Windows for a standalone configuration.
They are also
deploying Corporate Portal and Message Drop and Blast services. The network includes a
SIP-enabled
communication system and 500 end users.
How many Avaya ACE base software licenses are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 500
Answer: C

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NO.10 A technician is installing the Application Integration Engine (AIE) software in active
directory mode for a
standalone solution, the AIE software will be installed on a supported server with a supported
Windows
2008 operating system.
Which statement describes an installation prerequisite?
A. An existing version ApacheTomcat is running.
B. An existing version of Java Runtime Environment (JRE)is running.
C. TheWindows serveris configured with the role of DHCP Server.
D. TheWindows server is configured with the role of Web Server.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 7004-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.10 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 6007
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A technician logs into an Avaya ACE™ system to select the IP address for the ACE™ system.
Under the General tab, the technician navigates to the ACE™ Core Information section to
determine if this system can support High Availability. Which Avaya ACE™ RIs 3.0 Core
installation type supports High Availability?
A. Standalone and System Platform
B. System Platform only
C. Standalone only
D. Windows2008R2Server
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE) version 3.2.
As
part of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate
operating system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

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NO.3 A technician is installing the Avaya ACE™ base software on a supported Linux serves for a
standalone configuration. After the Avaya ACE™ software installation is complete, which action
should be taken to verify the standalone installation?
A. Loginto the active host using theLinux root user ID and verify that the HA clusterservice is
runningand that the AvayaACE™applicationis Started.
B. Log into the active host using the MySQL root user ID and verify that the HA cluster service is
running and that the AvayaACE™applicationis Started.
C. Log into the WebSphere Administrative Console and verify that the stateof the WebSphere
application server is started.
D. Log into the AvayaACE™usingthe floating IP address as the Linux root user ID and verify
thatthe HA cluster serviceis running and that the AvayaACE™application is Started.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A corporation wants to improve productivity of its mobile sales workforce. A key concern is
the
ability to forward calls from a primary office number to any other device that is directly reachable
via Direct Inward Dialing, such as another office telephone, home telephone, mobile telephone, or
even some hotel telephones. Which Avaya ACE™ solution matches the key capabilities that the
customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. Event Response Manager
C. MessageDrop and Blast
D. Web Browser and Office Add-ins
Answer: A

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NO.5 A technician is Installing an Avaya ACE™ Office Add in Desktop Enablement solution and has
confirmed that all of the system requirements are met. Which step is first in the Office Add-in
deployment process?
A. Install Internet Information Services (IIS) Version 6.0 on the administrative PC.
B. Install the Application Integration Engine (AIE) platform software.
C. Install the Avaya ACE™ DCEConfigurator.
D. Build the Office Add-in install package.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which mode must Application Integration Engine (AIE) be installed to support Web Browser
and
Office Add-ins?
A. IWA mode
B. HA mode
C. Clustered mode
D. Non-IWA mode
Answer: A

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NO.7 A technician has completed the installation of an Avaya ACE™ on Linux High Availability (HA)
configuration. While performing the final verification, it is discovered that a failover has occurred to
the Standby server. To determine what caused the failover, where can more detailed information
be obtained?
A. Review performance metrics online using the Avaya ACE™GUI (Performance - System
Metrics).
B. Review the troubleshooting documents from the Avaya ACE™ GUI (Help -
ProductDocumentation-Troubleshooting).
C. Review query active alarms using Linux commands.
D. Review log files from the AvayaACE™GUI (Fault-Logs Download).
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement describes the purpose of the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. It provides the environment to run web-enabled e-business applications.
B. It stores web user profile data and call session information.
C. It delivers a telephony presence and messaging services to web clients.
D. It provides the interface for SIP communications.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A technician is migrating from a previous release of Avaya ACE™.
Which statement matches the first step in the migration process?
A. Backup the existing AvayaACE™database and configuration.
B. Install a commercially-available 32-bit Linux operating system.
C. Install a commercially-available 64-btt Linux operating system.
D. Log in to the HostA using the root user ID and run the migration tool.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A technician has installed an Avaya ACE™ and Avaya Aura® solution. An Avaya Aura® TR/87
service provider is configured and is in service.
A web application is sending Avaya ACE™ a MakeCall request with a calling party of
tel:16135558755 and called party of tel:16135558754. The call is not connected as expected even
though the correct Avaya Aura® service provider is being selected on Avaya ACE™.
What is a likely problem with the Avaya Aura® service provider configuration on Avaya ACE™?
A. The callingand called party rules are not inserting a $ after the tel: in the translation rules.
B. The calling and called party rules are not removing a

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

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5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

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6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

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7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

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8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

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9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

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10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

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NO.4 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

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Exam Code: QAWI301V3.0
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
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Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement describes the performance impact that data tracking has on report refresh times,
assuming that the data changes but the number of rows retrieved and the data volume stays the same?
A.It will refresh up to three times faster.
B.It will refresh up to three times slower.
C.It will refresh faster each time the report is refreshed.
D.It will refresh slower each time the report is refreshed.
Answer:B

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NO.2 You are working with a set of store revenues. All stores have positive revenue values. Which formula
should you use to display the variance value of the Revenue measure in your document when data
tracking is active?
A.=[Revenue]/RefValue([Revenue])
B.=[Revenue]/PreValue([Revenue])
C.=[Revenue]/HistValue([Revenue])
D.=[Revenue]/BaseValue([Revenue])
Answer:A

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NO.3 Where in Web Intelligence Rich Client interface can you see the data source for a document built on a
local data source?
A.Global Settings
B.Report Settings
C.Query Properties
D.Document Properties
Answer:C

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NO.4 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the average
of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers and revenue and
create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function should you use in the
variable?
A.NoFilter()
B.NoRank()
C.AverageAll()
D.IgnoreFilter()
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A.It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B.It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are included
in the report.
D.The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are included in
the report.
Answer:A D

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NO.6 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the tracked
data?
A.Contact the system administrator.
B.Edit the document in tracking mode.
C.Open the document in tracking mode.
D.Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since your birth,
assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C.=DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D.=DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which two functions can you use to concatenate the strings "England" and "New" to create the string
"New England"? (Choose two.)
A.Left()
B.LeftPad()
C.LeftTrim()
D.Concatenate()
Answer:B D

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NO.9 Which two statements are true of the Web Intelligence default behavior when performing a UNION
combined query method? (Choose two.)
A.It performs a UNION.
B.It performs a UNION ALL.
C.It returns all values less the duplicates.
D.It returns all values including the duplicates.
Answer:A C

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NO.10 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use in an If()
function? (Choose two.)
A.In Cell
B.In Row
C.In Block
D.In Report
Answer:C D

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Exam Code: SABE501V
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

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NO.3 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

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NO.8 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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NO.10 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 050-V66-SERCMS02
Exam Name: RSA (RSA Certificate Management Solution 6.6 CSE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What does the X.509 standard apply to.?
A. contents of a digital certificate
B. strength of S/MIME encryption
C. protocol for connecting through a VPN
D. methods for secure public/private key storage
Answer: A

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NO.2 If an organization is about to begin deployment of an RSA Certificate manager PKI, what should the
organization do? (Choose two)
A. Smart card enable users browsers
B. Install a fiber Ethernet backbone to handle Web traffic
C. Locate a secure physical location for their RSA Certificate Manager hardware
D. Make sure all e-mail addresses are less than 25 characters for S/MIME
E. Secure the Operating System (OS) based on the OS vendor ¯ s r eco mm enda ti ons
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Where can the operation logs used for troubleshooting be found for RSA Certificate Manager and RSA
Registration Manager?
A. /<installed_directory>/logs
B. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/logs
C. /<installed_directory>/LogServer/operations/logs
D. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/operations/logs
Answer: B

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NO.4 When retrieving your certificate, you must ensure that
A. you use the same browser as when enrolled
B. the browser can support certificate description retrieval
C. the Administrator has configured you to perform IPSec transactions
D. you have a valid user account in the same domain as RSA Certificate Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 RSA Certificate Manager supports enrollment using which protocols? (Choose three)
A. CMP
B. SCEP
C. OCSP
D. DHCP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Manually generated CRLs can be configured to include the next update in relative or absolute time
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a CA has been revoked, the browser will always show that certificates issued by that CA are
invalid
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application may deem a certificate invalid if (Choose three)
A. the certificate has expired
B. the certificate ¯ s i ssue r i s no t tr us t ed
C. a certificate attribute name has been misspelled
D. the certificate is missing a required extension
E. the application ¯ s ad m i n i s tr a t o r has b l ocked t he pub li c key
F. the organization attribute in the certificate ¯ s DN i s no t kno w n t o t he app li ca ti o ¡ ¯s a d m inis t rato
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 During installation of the RSA Certificate Manager and the RSA Registration Managter, it is possible to
change the default port configurations
A. True
B. False
Answer : A

NO.10 What is the standard format for transporting certificates and private keys, as used with export and
import functions?
A. PKCS #7
B. MS CAPI
C. PKCS #11
D. PKCS #12
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 050-V71-CASECURID02
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Administrator 7.1 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

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NO.8 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.11 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

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NO.13 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.15 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

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NO.18 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

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NO.19 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

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NO.20 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

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Exam Name: ISACA (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
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Total Q&A: 395 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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